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WTF?


ghost's Avatar
0 0

[img]http://us.st11.yimg.com/us.st.yimg.com/I/computergear_1918_3785228[/img]

I saw this and its driving me crazy if you do the math it does come out to 1+1=1 Can someone please explain to me any way it could not be true it is in proof form and follows all algebraic rules


ghost's Avatar
0 0

Well, (x+y)(x-y)/(x-y) is equal to 0/0 which is undefined, and so is y(x-y)/(x-y) so I don't know if that has anything to do with this.

And also, what is the :. symbol?


ghost's Avatar
0 0

thats so weird. but it does make sense because the math is correct. ill copy it down and ask my teacher about it tommorow.


richohealey's Avatar
Python Ninja
0 0

it's easy. after factorising you divide by (x-y) if x=y then you divide by zero. BAM. instant error. and the :. means therefore


ghost's Avatar
0 0

ooooo gotcha yea i was thinkin it had to be something with an undifined number


ghost's Avatar
0 0

lol im just using this thread to look at my new sig


ghost's Avatar
0 0

Just a point but there are loads of proofs like that, they all prove that

a!=b x!=y etc


AldarHawk's Avatar
The Manager
0 0

Where did you find that question? it is not possible at all.


ghost's Avatar
0 0

if x = y when it says (x+y)(x-y) ((x-y) that would be 0/0 which was stated before, and 0 cannot be a denominator. if x = y how can (x + y) = y? I don't think this equation works, but I'll ask my teacher in a little bit.


ghost's Avatar
0 0

it was on one of those crazy shirt websites I think it was meant to confuse people because it looks like its a legit proof